AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C01 Exam Question Part 11 Version 2022

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  1. Which AWS service can be used to track resource changes and establish compliance?

A. Amazon CloudWatch
B. AWS Config
C. AWS CloudTrail
D. AWS Trusted Advisor

  1. A user has underutilized on-premises resources. Which AWS Cloud concept can BEST address this issue?

A. High availability
B. Elasticity
C. Security
D. Loose coupling

  1. A user has a stateful workload that will run on Amazon EC2 for the next 3 years. What is the MOST cost-effective pricing model for this workload?

A. On-Demand Instances
B. Reserved Instances
C. Dedicated Instances
D. Spot Instances

  1. A cloud practitioner needs an Amazon EC2 instance to launch and run for 7 hours without interruptions. What is the most suitable and cost-effective option for this task?

A. On-Demand Instance
B. Reserved Instance
C. Dedicated Host
D. Spot Instance

  1. Which of the following are benefits of using AWS Trusted Advisor? (Choose two.)

A. Providing high-performance container orchestration
B. Creating and rotating encryption keys
C. Detecting underutilized resources to save costs
D. Improving security by proactively monitoring the AWS environment
E. Implementing enforced tagging across AWS resources

  1. A developer has been hired by a large company and needs AWS credentials. Which are security best practices that should be followed? (Choose two.)

A. Grant the developer access to only the AWS resources needed to perform the job.
B. Share the AWS account root user credentials with the developer.
C. Add the developer to the administrator’s group in AWS IAM.
D. Configure a password policy that ensures the developer’s password cannot be changed.
E. Ensure the account password policy requires a minimum length.

  1. Which AWS storage service is designed to transfer petabytes of data in and out of the cloud?

A. AWS Storage Gateway
B. Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive
C. Amazon Lightsail
D. AWS Snowball

  1. Which service provides a user the ability to warehouse data in the AWS Cloud?

A. Amazon EFS
B. Amazon Redshift
C. Amazon RDS
D. Amazon VPC

  1. A user is planning to migrate an application workload to the AWS Cloud. Which control becomes the responsibility of AWS once the migration is complete?

A. Patching the guest operating system
B. Maintaining physical and environmental controls
C. Protecting communications and maintaining zone security
D. Patching specific applications

  1. Which services can be used to deploy applications on AWS? (Choose two.)

A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
B. AWS Config
C. AWS OpsWorks
D. AWS Application Discovery Service
E. Amazon Kinesis

  1. Under the AWS shared responsibility model, which of the following is a responsibility of AWS?

A. Enabling server-side encryption for objects stored in S3
B. Applying AWS IAM security policies
C. Patching the operating system on an Amazon EC2 instance
D. Applying updates to the hypervisor

  1. A user is able to set up a master payer account to view consolidated billing reports through:

A. AWS Budgets.
B. Amazon Macie.
C. Amazon QuickSight.
D. AWS Organizations.

  1. Which design principle is achieved by following the reliability pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework?

A. Vertical scaling
B. Manual failure recovery
C. Testing recovery procedures
D. Changing infrastructure manually

  1. What is a characteristic of Convertible Reserved Instances (RIs)?

A. Users can exchange Convertible RIs for other Convertible RIs from a different instance family.
B. Users can exchange Convertible RIs for other Convertible RIs in different AWS Regions.
C. Users can sell and buy Convertible RIs on the AWS Marketplace.
D. Users can shorten the term of their Convertible RIs by merging them with other Convertible RIs.

  1. The user is fully responsible for which action when running workloads on AWS?

A. Patching the infrastructure components
B. Implementing controls to route application traffic
C. Maintaining physical and environmental controls
D. Maintaining the underlying infrastructure components

  1. An architecture design includes Amazon EC2, an Elastic Load Balancer, and Amazon RDS. What is the BEST way to get a monthly cost estimation for this architecture?

A. Open an AWS Support case, provide the architecture proposal, and ask for a monthly cost estimation.
B. Collect the published prices of the AWS services and calculate the monthly estimate.
C. Use the AWS Simple Monthly Calculator to estimate the monthly cost.
D. Use the AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator to estimate the monthly cost.

  1. Which are benefits of using Amazon RDS over Amazon EC2 when running relational databases on AWS? (Choose two.)

A. Automated backups
B. Schema management
C. Indexing of tables
D. Software patching
E. Extract, transform, and load (ETL) management

  1. What does the Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class offer?

A. Payment flexibility by reserving storage capacity
B. Long-term retention of data by copying the data to an encrypted Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume
C. Automatic cost savings by moving objects between tiers based on access pattern changes
D. Secure, durable, and lowest cost storage for data archival

  1. A company has multiple data sources across the organization and wants to consolidate data into one data warehouse. Which AWS service can be used to meet this requirement?

A. Amazon DynamoDB
B. Amazon Redshift
C. Amazon Athena
D. Amazon QuickSight

  1. What AWS benefit refers to a customerג€™s ability to deploy applications that scale up and down the meet variable demand?

A. Elasticity
B. Agility
C. Security
D. Scalability

  1. During a compliance review, one of the auditors requires a copy of the AWS SOC 2 report. Which service should be used to submit this request?

A. AWS Personal Health Dashboard
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. AWS Artifact
D. Amazon S3

  1. A company wants to set up a highly available workload in AWS with a disaster recovery plan that will allow the company to recover in case of a regional service interruption. Which configuration will meet these requirements?

A. Run on two Availability Zones in one AWS Region, using the additional Availability Zones in the AWS Region for the disaster recovery site.
B. Run on two Availability Zones in one AWS Region, using another AWS Region for the disaster recovery site.
C. Run on two Availability Zones in one AWS Region, using a local AWS Region for the disaster recovery site.
D. Run across two AWS Regions, using a third AWS Region for the disaster recovery site.

  1. A company has a 500 TB image repository that needs to be transported to AWS for processing. Which AWS service can import this data MOST cost-effectively?

A. AWS Snowball
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. AWS VPN
D. Amazon S3

  1. Which AWS service can run a managed PostgreSQL database that provides online transaction processing (OLTP)?

A. Amazon DynamoDB
B. Amazon Athena
C. Amazon RDS
D. Amazon EMR

  1. Which of the following assist in identifying costs by department? (Choose two.)

A. Using tags on resources
B. Using multiple AWS accounts
C. Using an account manager
D. Using AWS Trusted Advisor
E. Using Consolidated Billing

  1. A company wants to allow full access to an Amazon S3 bucket for a particular user. Which element in the S3 bucket policy holds the user details that describe who needs access to the S3 bucket?

A. Principal
B. Action
C. Resource
D. Statement

  1. Which AWS service allows for effective cost management of multiple AWS accounts?

A. AWS Organizations
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. AWS Direct Connect
D. Amazon Connect

  1. A company is piloting a new customer-facing application on Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) for one month. What pricing model is appropriate?

A. Reserved Instances
B. Spot Instances
C. On-Demand Instances
D. Dedicated Hosts

  1. Which AWS tools automatically forecast future AWS costs?

A. AWS Support Center
B. AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator
C. AWS Simple Monthly Calculator
D. Cost Explorer

  1. Which components are required to build a successful site-to-site VPN connection on AWS? (Choose two.)

A. Internet gateway
B. NAT gateway
C. Customer gateway
D. Transit gateway
E. Virtual private gateway

  1. Which Amazon EC2 pricing option is best suited for applications with short-term, spiky, or unpredictable workloads that cannot be interrupted?

A. Spot Instances
B. Dedicated Hosts
C. On-Demand Instances
D. Reserved Instances

  1. Which AWS cloud architecture principle states that systems should reduce interdependencies?

A. Scalability
B. Services, not servers
C. Removing single points of failure
D. Loose coupling

  1. What is the MOST effective resource for staying up to date on AWS security announcements?

A. AWS Personal Health Dashboard
B. AWS Secrets Manager
C. AWS Security Bulletins
D. Amazon Inspector

  1. Which AWS service offers persistent storage for a file system?

A. Amazon S3
B. Amazon EC2 instance store
C. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)
D. Amazon ElastiCache

  1. Which of the following allows AWS users to manage cost allocations for billing?

A. Tagging resources
B. Limiting who can create resources
C. Adding a secondary payment method
D. Running all operations on a single AWS account

  1. Which AWS service allows users to download security and compliance reports about the AWS infrastructure on demand?

A. Amazon GuardDuty
B. AWS Security Hub
C. AWS Artifact
D. AWS Shield

  1. Which of the following AWS services are serverless? (Choose two.)

A. AWS Lambda
B. Amazon Elasticsearch Service
C. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
D. Amazon DynamoDB
E. Amazon Redshift

  1. Which AWS managed services can be used to extend an on-premises data center to the AWS network? (Choose two.)

A. AWS VPN
B. NAT gateway
C. AWS Direct Connect
D. Amazon Connect
E. Amazon Route 53

  1. Which requirement must be met for a member account to be unlinked from an AWS Organizations account?

A. The linked account must be actively compliant with AWS System and Organization Controls (SOC).
B. The payer and the linked account must both create AWS Support cases to request that the member account be unlinked from the organization.
C. The member account must meet the requirements of a standalone account.
D. The payer account must be used to remove the linked account from the organization.